April 3, 2010 – 10:41 am | 7 Comments

I’ve compiled a short (just 7-pages) e-book, an introduction to the mathematics of poker. It’s basically covers how to calculate your expected value in a certain spot – starting with explaining what EV is, all …

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Home » Theoretical

Theory of Induction

Submitted by on January 11, 2010 – 11:11 pmNo Comment

I had a really good discussion in my earlier post about my Pocket Aces hand. One thing from the conversation that struck me the most, however, was this statement by “Micro Donk”

if they fold to a bet of 8bb they will fold to a bet of 6bb, if they will call 6 bb they will call 8 bb

Yes I’ve heard that (or similar statements) said many times. And yes, logically, it seems to make sense. My question is, though, where is the line? Essentially the statement is saying that “if they fold to x bets, they’re likely to fold to x-2 bets”. And to a certain extent, that is true. But if we take that as always being true, then by induction, we will never raise any more than a minimum bet.

I haven’t quite come to terms with it yet, I don’t really have an answer. But I just thought I’d throw it out there? What do you think? Where’s the line after which the idea of “if he’ll fold x, he’ll fold x-1″ doesn’t hold true anymore?

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